By Ron Davis, Minister of Christ Jesus
[Note: This message was given in
part live on the radio, and in light of this I must note here that these are my
written notes; and my actual comments are on tape (available without cost for
those who request it). For a copy please email.]
Before explaining why Christ Jesus used the name “Jezebel”
in Revelation 2 when referring to the woman whom the churches were
allowing to teach and seduce (deceive) His servants. I like to point out
that this woman is the primary subject in the fourth message to the
churches, known as the “Corrupt” church, more specifically to the
Church, which was in Thyatira. The behavior and character of the
Christians in these seven messages to the seven churches are explained under
the link “Seven Messages to the Seven Churches”. These seven messages are to be understood in this context
that they refer to the churches of the saints at the time of the prophecy,
throughout the ages, and within each local congregation of the churches
throughout the ages, and represent the behavior and character each individual
within these local congregations then and now.
With that I ask this question, do you believe Christ and
God uses words without any meaning spiritual or otherwise? Why would Christ use
a name of a “woman” who defied God and persecuted His prophets in
the Old Testament, and did not mean to refer to this same “woman” ways
in this prophecy as an example of women in the churches of the saints? I mean
in light of all Scripture concerning women and the people of God, let us study
this “Jezebel”. And beginning with the phrases in Revelation
2:20, Christ says to these “Corrupt” churches, “you allow that woman Jezebel, who calls
herself a prophetess, to teach and seduce My servants”; and again He says in Revelation 2:24, “as many as do not have
this doctrine, who have not known the depths of Satan”, we must ask ourselves who were allowing this “Jezebel” to teach and mislead Christ’s servants? Also, we must ask, what are the
meaning of the phrases “this
doctrine” and “the depths of Satan”? For answers to these questions we must let Scripture
interpret Scripture, meaning we must go to other Scripture to find the answers.
Beginning in Isaiah 3, we see the Holy Spirit speaking by the
prophet Isaiah concerning women:
In Isaiah 3:12, the prophet Isaiah prophesied about the
people of God in last days (that's us as Christians today). God is quoted as
saying in verse… “12 “As for My people, children
are their oppressors, and women rule over them. O My people! Those
who lead you cause you to err, and destroy the way of your paths"...
The phrase “My people” refers to the
people of God, the children of Israel (both physical and spiritual); however,
today it refers more so to the people belonging to the Church of the Living God
(Rom. 9:6-7, 1 Peter 2:9-10). Using
other Scripture to interpret the phrase "children
are their oppressors", we find that the word “children” here refers to the immature in the faith - not yet being
of full age, babes in Christ; those who are without spiritual understanding,
those who are "unskilled in the
word of righteousness", unable to discern between good and evil (Heb. 5:12-14). The word “children” in Webster's dictionary is
also defined as “one strongly influenced by another or by a place or state
of affairs”.
The English word “children” here translated from the Hebrew original word “ll[“, transliterated word “`alal”, phonetic spelling “aw-lal'”; meaning: to act severely, deal
with severely, make a fool of someone, to be severely dealt with, to
busy oneself, divert oneself, deal wantonly, deal ruthlessly, abuse
(by thrusting through), to practice practices, thrust forth (in wickedness), to
glean, to act or play the child, to
insert, thrust, and thrust upon. Also, translated as glean, done, abuse,
mock, affected, children,
do, defiled, practice, thoroughly, wrought wonderfully, wrought (Strong’s
05953). As you can see the prophet Isaiah is referring to those who abuse
and deal severely with the people of God, these leaders are acting like
children in their dealings with those who seek God. Some may conclude that
these are literal children oppressing God’s people, but the context of the
verse do not support this belief. First, God is speaking of those who are His
not the world as a whole. Second, if this referred to the world as a whole then
you must ask the question is God saying women should not rule in this world?
Finally, the very context of the verse makes it clear God is speaking of “His
people” (those who claim to follow His word and those who have His Holy
Spirit); and the Holy Bible have many verses speaking against women ruling in
the Church of the Living God.
The English word “oppressors” in the Hebrew is translated from “Xgn” (original word), transliterated word “Nagas”, phonetic spelling “naw-gas' “; meaning to press, drive,
oppress, exact, exert demanding pressure,
to press, drive, to exact, driver, taskmaster, ruler, tyrant, lord,
exactor of tribute (participle), to be hard pressed. Also, translated as
oppressor, taskmasters, exact, distressed, oppressed, driver, exactors and
taxes (Strong’s 05065). The English word “oppressed” in the Hebrew means to press
upon, violate, defraud, do violence,
get deceitfully, wrong, extort, to be exploited, be crushed. Original word is “qX“, transliterated word “`ashaq”,
phonetic spelling “aw-shak' “ (Strong’s 06231).
Scripture speaks of those who are “oppressed”
as being mistreated, abused, wronged by deceitful practices, and afflicted by
those who are rich, those overseeing or shepherding them (as in the churches of
this world) or ruling them (Ex. 22:21,
Hosea 12:7,Acts 10:36 and James 2:6).
So, we have those who are responsible for shepherding the
people of God being influenced and swayed by society and the wise of
this world. Those without or choosing not to accept spiritual understanding (children
in the faith or acting like children in the faith); they deal deceitfully
with the flock causing them to follow the way of destruction. The people of God
are exploited and defrauded out of the rest and liberty in Christ Jesus by
leaders acting like or are children in the faith (2 Peter 2:18). Do you think God want the spiritual immature to
lead His people?
The phrase “women
rule over them” refers to women ministers and preachers who are allowed to teach
in the Church of the Living God causing God’s people to error in the way of God
(Ezek. 13:17-23 and Rev. 2:18-29).
These women and “children” ruling
over God’s people have caused those who are slipping away from the faith to be
influenced by others in mainstream Christianity (who are swayed by this world’s
customs more than by the word of God).
Now, I ask these questions for those who wish to discern
God's will concerning women ruling over them. Why would God say His
people have women ruling over them, if it was okay? Are women ministers
considered rulers in the church (Heb.
13:7,13)? Is God saying women should not rule over Christian men?
Remembering if women (God did not say some women) lead God’s people astray then
its understood that no woman should lead the people of God. Why did God say
these women are leading His people into error? Does God always mean what He say
(I ask this question as one of the foolish one - seeing how we are denying this
plainly written Scripture apply to us today)? Is God saying women and the
spiritual immature are leading us into error? I ask these questions for your
spiritual discernment. In Isaiah 3:12,
God shows us as Christians that women should not rule over His people, yet
today we still have those who lead God’s people debating what Paul (who was speaking
by the Holy Spirit) meant in 1
Corinthians 14:33-40 and 1 Timothy 2:11-15. Please let us rightly divide
the word, "and this we will do if God permits" (Heb. 5:3).
In Ecclesiastes
7:26 (NIV), The Preacher of wisdom speaks of a “woman who is a snare” to men seeking to do God’s will.
Notice what he says here concerning those men who escapes these women…"26 I find more bitter than death
the woman who is a snare, whose heart is a trap and whose hands are chains. The
man who pleases God will escape her, but the sinner she will ensnare”…Here
the Holy Spirit says “the man who
pleases God escapes” from this type of woman. Am I saying all women
fall in this category? No! But the Scripture is giving us this warning. How
then can we allow women to control an entire flock of saints? If you want to
please God then do not allow women to ensnare you with "smooth and
persuasive words".
In
Isaiah 3 (NIV), who are these “women
of Zion” the Prophet speaks of in verses
16 and 17? We know the word “Zion”
refers to the city of David, the heavenly Jerusalem (the spiritual Church of
God), the city of the living God (1
Kings 8:1, Ps. 51:18, Heb. 12:22 and Rev. 14:1). This is where we as
Christians currently reside spiritual (by the Spirit of Christ in us). When God
speaks of the “haughty” women in
Zion, He speaks of the women in the Church of God…
The word “haughty” means to be “blatantly and disdainfully
proud” (Webster’s definition). Are the women who claim to be
teachers of men today described here? Why did God say this about these women?
Can women be submissive as the law says, and disdainfully proud at the same
time? I think not. These women are those who have given up their place in God’s
order of authority in the Church of the Living God.
Now, let us move to the woman name Jezebel in the Holy Bible, according
to the below listed Scriptures we get a background on another woman with the
name Jezebel. In Revelations 2:20, our
Lord and Master Christ Jesus refers to a woman name Jezebel, as one who "calls herself a prophetess".
Question, does this mean
Jesus do not consider this woman a prophetess? Most of the "wise of
this world" would claim this does not refer to a woman in the Old
Testament with this same name. They like to have you believe and think that
Christ just used this name without any historical reference or spiritual or
symbolic meanings. Questions: Is this a leap from sound logic and doctrine? Do
not other Scripture use names of those in the Old Testament to describe a
behavior of those today? For example, in the New Testament, the name “Balaam”
is used twice by the Holy Spirit and once by Christ; it is used to describe a
prophet (man of God) in the Old Testament with the same name behavior; that is
he was peddling the word of God to gain a dishonest profit, and practiced
deceit to sway the people of God from serving the true Living God in heaven (see
2 Peter 2:15, Jude 1:11 and Revelation 2:14). Now, in light of this, is it
logical for us to believe that Christ used a woman name Jezebel to describe a
sinful behavior of both men and women? Would not this Jezebel in Revelation
represent only women who displayed the behavior of this same Jezebel in the Old
Testament?
I say to you, that Christ referred to this woman by the
name “Jezebel” and her teaching His saints for a
reason. In Galatians 4:22-26, we
have Scripture using the names of women (Hagar and Sarah the mothers are
Abraham sons Ishmael and Isaac) to symbolic represent the two covenants, the
old and new covenants. What Hagar and Sarah did in history help us to
understand this symbolic representation? So, I ask this question how is it that
wise of this world (Bible scholars) can honestly say Christ used the name "Jezebel" without referring
to the only woman in the whole Bible by this name? This for ministry is a true
example of those who wish to deceive and those who are being deceived using
unsound doctrine and refusing to receive sound doctrine. There are basic two
ways words are used in the Holy Scriptures when referring to prophecy or the
character of someone or something; and that is this the person or things
referred to have the behavior and / or meaning of the words used. Using this kind
of logic in understanding Scripture is practicing sound doctrine; for as the
name “Egypt” represent sin, as the name “Babel or Babylon”
represent confusion (which is the meaning of the word), deceit and mystery in
religion and this world’s society, and the name “Jerusalem” represent
the mother of all God’s people; therefore we must conclude the name “Jezebel”
represent all the women who “usurp man’s authority” and “calls
herself a prophetess” in the Church (for she is allowed to teach by the
men in the Church) and all these women who “teach and lead” God’s
servants into error (I Kings 21:7-8, Isaiah 3:12 and Rev. 2:20). Well,
you decide for yourself, and trust God to say what He mean and do what He says.
Let us first go to the Old Testament, and see
what this woman name “Jezebel” did and what she represented. Going to 1 Kings 16:31, we see Ahab is said to
have married a woman name Jezebel, which was against God's command to Israel
and later Judah under the old covenant, and that is not to marry foreign women,
the women of the nations God would drive out of the land for them (Deut.
7:1-11). As we see here in 1 Kings 16:31…
Notice what's said here that Ahab considered it "a
trivial thing" to sin as his evil father Omri as reported in 1 Kings
16:25-29, who also followed in the ways of Jeroboam where the
Spirit tells us in 1 Kings 12:26-33, that he set up another religion by
placing two golden calves one in Bethel and one in Dan, along with an eight day
holiday similar to God’s feast days in Judah when the nation of Israel
separated into two nations (1 Kings 12). The sins of Ahab caused all Israel to sin against God, as did
Jeroboam (1 Kings 16:25-33). Ahab
willingly submitted to the Baal worship of the Sidonians and his wife Jezebel
because he did not care about nor did he fear God. Ahab through the teachings
of Jezebel's Baal worship caused the people of Israel (the physical people of
God) to sin against God.
Here, the Holy Spirit informs us that Ahab ‘let’ and
‘allowed’ his wife Jezebel to teach and seduce the people of Israel with
the Baal worship of the Sidonians. This is the behavior of the men in the
churches today, having allowed women to teach and rule over men in the churches
of this world. This is one reason Christ used the name Jezebel in Revelation
2. These men fear men (this society) more than God by willingly making it “a
trivial thing” to sin against God by allowing women to declare with a “blatantly
and disdainfully proud” attitude that they have a divine right to
preach in the churches. These women and men who support them openly attack the
apostle Paul and the Holy Spirit and the teachings of the Word of God.
In 1 Kings 18:12-13, Obadiah who feared God had hid
100 prophets of God when Jezebel was killing them (1 Kings 18:3-4) ...
Notice what's being said here, Jezebel was so bold that
she even killed the prophets of the Living God. This is
pure direct rebellion against God, which is witchcraft. Here’s another reason
why Christ used the name Jezebel in Revelation 2, for there are some who
realize they are sinning against God but refuse to repent (Rev. 2:21). These
women ministers are bold in their rebellion against God, and openly speak
against the Holy Spirit by claiming Paul was not inspired by the Spirit when he
wrote the teachings concerning women in the churches. These women ministers are
spiritually killing those who are following her teachings which of the depths
of Satan (Rev. 2:23-24).
Now in 1 Kings 18:17-40, Elijah challenged the children of
Israel to choose the Living God in heaven or Baal the god of Jezebel and the
Sidonians. After God sent fire from heaven to consume the burnt
sacrifice of Elijah including the water, Elijah killed the prophets of Baal.
The people of Israel all proclaimed the Living God in heaven as their Lord and
God, and Ahab went and told Jezebel in 1
Kings 19:1-3...
Please note that Jezebel showed no fear of the Living God
in heaven even after Ahab had told her what God had did through His servant
Elijah. No, Jezebel was so aroused with hatred for Elijah and the
Living God that she sent a letter saying she was going to kill Elijah. Elijah,
fearing death ran for his life. This is an example for us as Christians today that
fear can cause us not to trust God, yet God will sustain us and show Himself to
be faithful.
Again, this wicked and evil woman Jezebel 1 Kings 21 (NKJV) devised a scheme to kill
an innocent man for his vineyard. This is another behavior trait of these women
spoken of by Christ in Revelation 2, and called by the spiritual name
Jezebel. The elders and nobles men of the city of Jezreel carried out this evil
scheme for Jezebel...
When God pronounced judgment on Jezebel, notice
what He says about Ahab, "there was
no one like Ahab who sold himself to do wickedness" whom Jezebel
stirred up.
God says in 1 Kings 21 (NIV), that Ahab sold himself to do
evil (he sold himself to his wife and the evil one). God
further says that Ahab behaved "in
the vilest manner" causing Israel to sin, and Ahab did all this by the
urging of his wife, Jezebel...
Ahab was more willing to follow his wife Jezebel than God, and he
refused to hear the servants and prophets of God allowing his wife Jezebel to
persecute and kill them at will.
Finally, Jezebel in 2 Kings 9 is said to be the one
responsible for the blood of God's prophets and servants...
Again, please note what God says here that Jezebel
practice witchcraft (remember rebellion against God is the same as
witchcraft) and harlotries. Do you think these harlotries of Jezebel were
sexual in nature? Or was Jezebel committing these harlotries with other gods?
Summary of Jezebel’s behavior and character:
1) She
killed God’s prophets.
2) Directly
opposed God and His people.
3) She was “blatantly
and disdainfully proud”.
4)
Exercised authority over Ahab, the king of Israel and the
people in Ahab place (usurp his authority).
5)
She was rebellious and blasphemous against God.
6)
Jezebel urged on and stirred up Ahab to do wickedness, she
was a snare to Ahab.
7)
Jezebel committed harlotry by serving other gods, and
taught the nation of Israel to do the same.
8)
Jezebel practiced witchcraft.
This leads us to Christ's words in Revelation 2:20 where He says a woman
called by the name "Jezebel" teaches
and misleads His "servants to
commit sexual immorality". I ask the question do you believe all
Christ's servants are committing sexual (physical) immorality with this "Jezebel"?
For Christ is speaking spiritual, that this woman Jezebel is causing His
servants to serve other gods.
Looking at the meaning of the word 'prophetess' in the original Greek is 'profetiB'; transliterated word 'Prophetis', a woman whom future events
or things hidden from others are at times revealed, either by inspiration or by
dreams and visions; female who declares or interprets oracles. Translated as
prophetess twice in the KJV / NAS Luke
2:36 about Anna a true prophetess and Rev.
2:20 concerning Jezebel the false prophetess (Strong's definition).
The Hebrew word 'Ieza/bel'
transliterated word 'Iezabel, ee-ed-zab-ale’
a noun feminine Jezebel = 'chaste'. Since, her name means “chaste”
this rules out the sound doctrine
of interpreting Christ meaning that the meaning of her name describes the
behavior He describes. The next sound doctrinal interpretation would be to look
for a person in biblical history with this name, and see what was her
character. When we look at Jezebel in biblical history, we see she was the wife of Ahab, a brutal and cruel woman
who ruled over Ahab, the king of Israel and the people; she seduced the people
causing the people of Israel to commit idolatry (spiritual harlotry) with other
gods. She also persecuted and killed the prophets of God. Now, we see that
Christ used her name symbolic Revelation 2:20, as a woman in the
churches of the saints who was and is “allowed” to teach in the
churches, and she pretends to be and / or “calls herself a prophetess”
in the churches of the Living God meaning she is a false prophet. This Jezebel
represents all the women of today who are teaching and prophesying in the
churches of the saints of God.
Jezebel was the daughter of a king of Sidon, one of
the nations God told the Israelites not to give their sons or daughters to
marry. Ahab, the king of Israel is said to have taken, “as wife Jezebel the daughter of Ethbaal,
king of the Sidonians; and he went and served Baal and worshiped him” (1
Kings 16:30-32). Jezebel's name in history became to represent those "women
who called themselves ministers", those women who are deceitful,
persuasive, and non-submissive to their husbands. These women are not willing
to submit to sound doctrine, the law of God, and His Christ. In the New
Testament the name “Jezebel” means those women who are dominating in the
churches of the saints of God. Jezebel caused the persecution and death of the
servants and prophets of God (1 Kings
18:3-4,12-13). She ruled over Ahab the king of Israel and many false
prophets who served the false god Baal (1
Kings 18:19). Our Lord and Savior Christ Jesus in Revelation 2:20 used her name to represent all the rebellious women
who are teaching in the churches of the saints of God today (calling themselves
ministers and prophetesses).
The Greek word 'plana/w'
translated as seduce, (also notice this word is most commonly translated as 'deceive', in other parts of the KJV and other translations uses ' lead astray' or 'misleads'); its from
the transliterated word 'Planao,
plan-ah'-o' meaning: to cause to stray, to lead astray, lead aside from the
right way, to go astray, wander, roam about, “to lead away from the truth, to
lead into error, to deceive, to be led into error, to be led aside from the
path of virtue, to go astray, sin, to sever or fall away from the truth, of
heretics, to be led away into error and sin” (see Strongs’ definition).
In Revelation
2 verses 18-29, Christ speaks of a woman referred to as "Jezebel". The name "Jezebel" occurs twice in the
Scripture (once in the Old Testament and once in the New Testament). In the Old
Testament, Jezebel was a very wicked and evil woman who killed and persecuted God’s
prophets and people of God, and she caused the people of Israel to commit
harlotry (sexual immorality) against God...
First, I ask these questions for your spiritual
discernment. Do you believe Christ used a woman here for no reason other than
giving us an example of a person defying God? Are there other examples where
Christ used a woman’s name to show someone teaching error in the Church of the
Living God, just because or for no reason? Why did Christ say in verse 20 the Church "allowed"
this woman Jezebel to teach? Why did Christ say this woman “calls herself
a prophetess"?
Have the Holy Scripture used this phrase called "herself a prophetess" before this time? I mean think
about what I am saying here.
In Isaiah 3:12, which I spoke on above, there
God says these women were ruling over His people and leading them into error.
These women were destroying the way of His people, leading them away from His
word. In
In Nehemiah 6:14, we
have the false prophetess Noadiah trying to intimidate Nehemiah... "14 Remember Tobiah and Sanballat,
O my God, because of what they have done; remember also the prophetess
Noadiah and the rest of the prophets who have been trying to intimidate
me".
This
message was given in part on WJRO 1590AM coming out of Glen Burnie /
Baltimore, Maryland area. Send your comments to Evangelist Ron Davis,
of the Kush Edifying Ministries.
mailto:yourcomment@kemonline.411-cashflow.com
OR if
you want to debate my conclusion of this matter; if you want to argue your own “private interpretation”, then please send
it to the below email address with your Scripture backing up what you say.
Thanks, and may God bless you in understanding His Holy and righteous word.
mailto:yourargument@kemonline.411-cashflow.com
May God
bless and continue to bless you and your household until we speak again. Amen.
Praise God.
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